2026 220-1202 Dumps PDF - 220-1202 Real Exam Questions Answers
Valid 220-1202 Test Answers & CompTIA 220-1202 Exam PDF
NEW QUESTION # 98
A technician is attempting to join a workstation to a domain but is receiving an error message stating the domain cannot be found. However, the technician is able to ping the server and access the internet. Given the following information:
IP Address - 192.168.1.210
Subnet Mask - 255.255.255.0
Gateway - 192.168.1.1
DNS1 - 8.8.8.8
DNS2 - 1.1.1.1
Server - 192.168.1.10
Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?
- A. Assign a static IP address.
- B. Update the default gateway.
- C. Change the DNS settings.
- D. Configure a subnet mask.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The issue described-"domain cannot be found" despite the ability to ping the server and access the internet- indicates aDNS resolution problem, not a network connectivity issue. The workstation is currently usingpublic DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1)whichcannot resolve internal domain names, such as the ones used in Active Directory environments. To resolve this, the technician needs tochange the DNS settings to point to the internal DNS server, which in most domain setups is thedomain controller itself (likely
192.168.1.10 in this case).
Here's the breakdown of the incorrect options:
B). Assign a static IP address: The IP is already assigned and functioning; the device can ping and reach the network and internet.
C). Configure a subnet mask: The subnet mask is appropriate for the network range (Class C /24).
D). Update the default gateway: The gateway is valid and allows internet access; this is not the issue.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:
Objective 1.8 - Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.
Under this objective, candidates must know how to troubleshoot OS-based network configurations, includingproper DNS settings in domain environments.
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NEW QUESTION # 99
A user is installing a third-party application on the latest macOS. The user receives a security warning that states the application is unsigned and cannot be installed. Which of the following settings should the user adjust to allow the installation?
- A. iCloud
- B. Accessibility
- C. Finder
- D. Privacy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Adjusting the Privacy (Security & Privacy) settings allows the user to override macOS Gatekeeper restrictions and permit the installation of an unsigned third-party application.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following filesystems supports read and write operations for Windows, macOS, and Linux?
- A. ext4
- B. APFS
- C. ReFS
- D. NTFS
- E. exFAT
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
exFATis the only listed file system that supports both read and write access across Windows, macOS, and Linux (with appropriate drivers). It's optimized for flash storage and external drives.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"exFAT is a lightweight file system with cross-platform read/write support, ideal for use on removable drives when compatibility is essential."
NEW QUESTION # 101
You are configuring a home network for a customer. The customer has requested the ability to access a Windows PC remotely, and needs all chat and optional functions to work in their game console.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to complete the network configuration for the customer. Each option may only be used once, and not all options will be used.
Then, click the + sign to place each device in its appropriate location.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Wireless AP LAN
Firewall Screened Subnet
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
The completed configuration:
1. Wireless AP (LAN side)
1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1
2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK
2. Router (port-forward rule)
1. Allow TCP Any 3389
This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.
3. Firewall (screened subnet side)
1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1
4. Device placement
1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).
2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).
3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).
The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.
The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection.
Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:
Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.
Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.
Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A technician reviews an organization's incident management policy. The organization uses a third-party vendor with multiple tools to protect its assets. What service type is this?
- A. PaaS
- B. EDR
- C. XDR
- D. MDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Managed Detection and Response (MDR)involves outsourcing security monitoring to a third-party that uses multiple tools and analytics.
FromTravis Everett - All-in-One Exam Guide:
"MDR providers handle threat detection and response using a combination of advanced tools, analytics, and expert personnel."
NEW QUESTION # 103
A company requires technicians to verify that files downloaded from the internet have not been modified.
Which of the following should the technicians use for validation?
- A. Plug-in
- B. Hashing
- C. Extensions
- D. SSL certificate
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Hashing, because hashing is specifically designed to verify file integrity and detect whether a file has been altered after its original creation or distribution. A hash is a fixed-length value generated by running a file through a hashing algorithm such as SHA-256 or SHA-1. Even a single-bit change in the file will produce a completely different hash value.
According to the Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, hashing is commonly used to validate downloaded software by comparing the calculated hash of the downloaded file with the hash published by the vendor. If the two values match, the technician can be confident that the file has not been modified or tampered with.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz - All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that hashing ensures integrity, not confidentiality or authentication. SSL certificates secure data in transit, but they do not validate files after download. Plug-ins and extensions provide additional browser functionality but have no role in verifying file integrity.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that hashing is a standard best practice in secure software deployment and malware prevention. It allows technicians to confirm that files are exactly as the publisher intended.
Because the requirement is to confirm that files have not been modified, hashing is the correct and most reliable method, making A the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A user called the help desk to report an issue with the internet connection speed on a laptop. The technician thinks that background services may be using extra bandwidth. Which of the following tools should the technician use to investigate connections on the laptop?
- A. net user
- B. net use
- C. netstat
- D. nslookup
Answer: C
Explanation:
The netstat tool displays active network connections and listening ports, allowing the technician to identify background services and processes that may be using extra bandwidth on the laptop.
NEW QUESTION # 105
A company wants to use a single operating system for its workstations and servers and avoid licensing fees.
Which of the following operating systems would the company most likely select?
- A. Windows
- B. Chrome OS
- C. Linux
- D. macOS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Linux is an open-source operating system that is freely available and does not require traditional licensing fees. It is highly versatile and scalable, making it suitable for both workstations and servers. Many enterprise environments use Linux to reduce software costs and benefit from robust server features.
B: Windows requires per-device or per-user licensing for both workstation and server editions.
C: macOS is proprietary and limited to Apple hardware with licensing restrictions.
D: Chrome OS is designed for lightweight devices and lacks server functionality.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.8 & 1.9: Identify common features and tools of the Linux client/desktop OS.
Study Guide Section: Open-source operating systems and licensing considerations
NEW QUESTION # 106
An end user is unable to print to a network printer but can access everything else on the network. Other users have no issues printing. A technician opens the print queue on the user's computer and sees the job has failed.
What is the next step to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Restarting the computer and attempting to print again
- B. Printing a test document from another computer
- C. Removing the printer and reinstalling it
- D. Restarting the print spooler from services
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Restarting the print spooler from services, because the problem is isolated to one user and the print job is stuck or failed in the local print queue. This strongly indicates a print spooler service issue on the user's workstation.
According to the Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, the print spooler manages print jobs sent from applications to printers. If the spooler service hangs or becomes unstable, print jobs may fail even though network connectivity and the printer itself are functioning correctly.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz - All-in-One Exam Guide explains that restarting the print spooler is a standard troubleshooting step when jobs remain in a failed or paused state. This clears the queue and reloads the service without requiring a full system reboot.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that reinstalling printers should be done only after service-level troubleshooting has failed. Printing from another computer is unnecessary because other users are already printing successfully, confirming the printer and network are operational.
Because the failure is local to the user and visible in the queue, restarting the print spooler service is the most logical and efficient next step, making B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A computer technician is implementing a solution to support a new internet browsing policy for a customer's business. The policy prohibits users from accessing unauthorized websites based on categorization. Which of the following should the technician configure on the SOHO router?
- A. Firewall
- B. Content filtering
- C. Group Policy Editor
- D. Secure management access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Content filtering on a SOHO router lets you block or allow websites based on their categories (e.g., social media, gambling, news). By defining which categories are unauthorized, the router enforces the browsing policy at the network edge, preventing users from reaching disallowed sites.
NEW QUESTION # 108
A user reports getting a BSOD error on their computer at least twice a day. Which of the following should the technician use to determine the cause?
- A. Performance Monitor
- B. Device Manager
- C. System Information
- D. Event Viewer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Event Viewer logs system errors, including the critical events that lead up to and include Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) incidents. By reviewing the "System" and "Application" logs, especially the error entries and any bugcheck codes, you can identify the faulting driver, service, or hardware component responsible for the crashes.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following malware types typically has very high computing resource usage?
- A. Boot sector virus
- B. Rootkit
- C. Cryptominer
- D. Trojan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cryptominer malware uses significant computing resources to mine crypto currency, resulting in very high resource usage.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A user wants to use several used computers to set up a low-cost lab at home to study and test scripts for managing servers. Which of the following would be the best operating system choice?
- A. Windows
- B. ChromeOS
- C. Linux
- D. macOS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Linux is the best choice for a low-cost home lab built from used PCs because it is free/open source and widely used in server environments, making it ideal for practicing server administration and scripting. Quentin Docter explains that Linux was created as a free, open source OS and that it can function as both a workstation OS and a server OS depending on installation and configuration-exactly what a lab for
"managing servers" needs. The All-in-One guide also highlights that Linux was made "freely available for everyone," reinforcing why it fits a low-cost requirement (no licensing cost). Mike Meyers' Lab Manual similarly describes Linux as a "popular, free, open source" OS and emphasizes the importance of the command line-critical for scripting and automation in admin tasks.
By comparison, macOS requires Apple hardware, Windows typically requires licensing costs, and ChromeOS is designed as a cloud-based/stateless OS centered on web apps and Google Drive, making it less suitable for broad server scripting labs.
References: Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide (Linux free/open source; Linux as workstation/server; ChromeOS cloud-based); Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz - CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide (Linux made freely available; licensing context); Mark Soper - Mike Meyers' A+ Lab Manual (Linux free/open source; CLI importance for techs/scripting).
NEW QUESTION # 111
An employee is trying to connect their company laptop to an airport's Wi-Fi during a business trip. Once the network is connected, a pop-up window appears with the airport logo, which the employee quickly closes.
The internet connection is not working properly. Which of the following should a help desk technician suggest?
- A. Tell the employee that company policy prohibits connection to public Wi-Fi
- B. Reconnect to the network and read the pop-up carefully
- C. Contact the airport IT department
- D. Look for a wall socket with RJ45 and try to connect the laptop to it
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Most public Wi-Fi networks requireinteraction with a captive portal(e.g., terms of use or login). Dismissing it prevents the user from gaining internet access. Reconnecting and completing the portal page is essential.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"Many public hotspots require user acknowledgment or login via a captive portal. Skipping this step results in no internet access."
NEW QUESTION # 112
You have been contacted through the help desk chat application. A user is setting up a replacement SOHO router. Assist the user with setting up the router.
INSTRUCTIONS
Select the most appropriate statement for each response. Click the send button after each response to continue the chat.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:
>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."
Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:
>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"
Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:
>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password." Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:
>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character." Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:
>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."
Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following types of malware collects and sends data to an unknown third party without the user's consent?
- A. Ransomware
- B. Trojan
- C. Spyware
- D. Virus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spyware is designed specifically to collect user or system data and transmit it to a third party without the user's knowledge or consent.
NEW QUESTION # 114
A technician is setting up a Windows server to allow remote desktop connections for multiple users. Which of the following should the technician configure on the workstation?
- A. Computer Management
- B. User Accounts
- C. Ease of Access
- D. Firewall
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.
B: Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.
C: User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.
D: Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity-it's for accessibility features.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and firewall settings.
Study Guide Section: Enabling and securing RDP via firewall settings
NEW QUESTION # 115
Performance on a user's smartphone is degrading. Applications take a long time to start, and switching between apps is slow. Which of the following diagnostic steps should a mobile technician take first?
- A. Uninstall unneeded applications
- B. Restart the phone
- C. Restore the phone to factory settings
- D. Check the phone's battery state
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
One of the most common causes for performance degradation on smartphones isstorage or memory overloaddue to excessive apps.Uninstalling unused appsis a basic but effective first diagnostic step.
FromTravis Everett - All-in-One Exam Guide:
"Start troubleshooting sluggish smartphones by clearing unused apps and files before performing advanced diagnostics or resets."
NEW QUESTION # 116
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