[2025] Pass Facebook 200-101 Exam Updated 60 Questions
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Facebook 200-101 Certification Exam is designed for professionals who want to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in the field of marketing science. 200-101 exam is created by Facebook to test the proficiency of individuals in applying data-driven insights to drive business growth and optimize advertising campaigns on the platform. Facebook Certified Marketing Science Professional certification validates the expertise of individuals in using Facebook's advertising tools and understanding the platform's algorithm.
NEW QUESTION # 11
A CPG advertiser wants to determine how much ROI is provided by Facebook compared to other channels, like TV and online publishers. The advertiser runs a digita deep dive marketing mix modeling.
Refer to information from the test:
- A. Using the charts, what should an analyst recommend regarding Facebook?
- B. Maintain media execution on Facebook as usual
- C. Increase media execution on Facebook above the max ROI threshold
- D. Keep media execution on Facebook between the minimum and max marginal threshold
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 12
A new energy beverage brand needs to measure its upcoming digital campaign using experimental design. The campaign will run through an ad network that specializes in delivering ads to the most suitable audiences according to the message that is being communicated. When approaching a measurement partner, it learns that their suggested methodology has the following characteristics:
* Splits the intended audiences into two groups: A and B
* Group A will be shown the brand's advertising
* Group B will be shown a public service announcement instead of the brand's ad
* A survey with at least 500 respondents per group will then be conducted focusing on brand favorability
* The scores will be compared between both groups
What should the brand manager expect from this experimental setup?
- A. Outcome accuracy will be negatively affected due to the amount of survey responses
- B. Outcomes will be biased due to low baseline awareness
- C. Outcomes will be biased because audiences in both groups are likely to be different
- D. Outcome accuracy will depend on the type of public service announcement used
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 13
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
- A. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
- B. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
- C. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
- D. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Open Shortest Path First http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Open_Shortest_Path_First
The configuration of R1 shows "router ospf 1" however, the diagram also shows that both routers should be in the backbone OSPF Area of "0". When routers are in different OSPF areas they will not form a neighbor relationship. Neighbor relationships As a link state routing protocol, OSPF establishes and maintains neighbor relationships in order to exchange routing updates with other routers. The neighbor relationship table is called an adjacency database in OSPF. Provided that OSPF is configured correctly, OSPF forms neighbor relationships only with the routers directly connected to it. In order to form a neighbor relationship between two routers, the interfaces used to form the relationship must be in the same area. Generally an interface is only configured in a single area, however you can configure an interface to belong to multiple areas. In the second area, such an interface must be configured as a secondary interface. (A neighbor state simulation shows how neighbor state changes from Down to Full Adjacency progressively with exchanging Hello, DD, Request, Update, and Ack packets).
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
- A. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
- B. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
- C. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
- D. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 15
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
- A. physical
- B. network
- C. transport
- D. data link
Answer: D
Explanation:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2.http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.sht ml
NEW QUESTION # 16
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
- A. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
- B. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
- C. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
- D. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
- E. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
- F. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) http://archive.networknewz.com/2004/0317.html
VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A marketing effectiveness analyst based in an emerging market obtains the following multiple linear regression output for predicting sales as function of price (Price), distribution (Distribution) and advertising (Ads). Some issues occurred with the software, and some of the regression results are corrupted on the output.
What interpretation should be made from the output?
- A. Intercept is not statistically significant at 0.05 level
- B. The coefficient for the price has a positive sign
- C. The t-stat for distribution variable is approximately 2.0
- D. The adjusted R square is between 0.81 and 1.00
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
- A. redundant
- B. spanned
- C. provisioned
- D. converged
Answer: D
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?
- A. show interfaces serial
- B. show frame-relay lmi
- C. show frame-relay pvc
- D. show frame-relay map
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 20
An advertiser wants to know whether campaign strategy A had significantly different performance than campaign strategy B in terms of additional sales. The campaigns both ran at the same time against mutually exclusive portions of the advertiser's customer base.
What is the null hypothesis of the test design?
- A. Sales Lift A = 0, Sales Lift B < 0
- B. Sales Lift A > 0, Sales Lift B = 0
- C. Sales Lift A >= Sales Lift B
- D. Sales Lift A = Sales Lift B
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
- A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
- B. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
- C. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
- D. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
- E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
- F. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also
some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring...)
configured by default -> A is not correct.
To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or
Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don't affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct.
Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or
sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24
for VLAN 2 -> D is correct.
A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on
the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its
bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this
frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct.
We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A. Exhibit A
- B. Exhibit B
- C. Exhibit C
- D. Exhibit D
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://networklessons.com/eigrp/eigrp-neighbor-and-topology-table-explained/
To be the feasible successor, the Advertised Distance (AD) of that route must be less than the Feasible Distance (FD) of the successor. From the output of the "show ip eigrp topology 10.0.0.5
255.255.255.255 we learn that the FD of the successor is 41152000. Now we will mention about the answers, in the "Composite metric is (.../...)" statement the first parameter is the FD while the second parameter is the AD of that route. So we need to find out which route has the second parameter (AD) less than 41152000 -> only answer B satisfies this requirement with an AD of 128256.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
- A. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
- B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
- C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
- D. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
- E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
- F. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibit.
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
- A. Switch4, port fa0/2
- B. Switch3, port fa0/1
- C. Switch3, port Gi0/1
- D. Switch3, port Gi0/2
- E. Switch3, port fa0/12
- F. Switch4, port fa0/11
Answer: F
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than thatof Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)
NEW QUESTION # 25
A charity organization is in the process of allocating advertising budget to cross-publisher video campaigns. In order to assess which platform is generating the highest return or aci spend, it reviews results in Facebook Attribution, using an even-credit model for cross-publisher campaigns arc the data-driven attribution model for its Facebook campaigns.
In addition to this, the charity ran a multi-cell Brand Lift test to test different creative messaging with a custom audience based on website visitors who did NOT sign up to donate or receive regular emails.
Which two KPIs should be used to provide meaningful insights? (Choose 2)
- A. Average reach per campaign
- B. Number of sign-ups attributed to each campaign
- C. Value of donations attributed to each campaign
- D. Average video-view duration for each campaign
- E. Number of impressions attributed to each campaign
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 26
DRAG DROP
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol, so it is vendor-specific. By default, EIGRP internal routes have an administrative distance value of 90. OSPF uses cost as its metric. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on bandwidth with the formula cost= 10000 0000/bandwidth (in bps). OSPF elects a DR on each broadcast and nonbroadcast multiaccess networks (like Ethernet and Frame Relay environments, respectively). It doesn't elect a DR on point-to-point link (like a serial WAN).
Topic 3, IP Services
NEW QUESTION # 27
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
- A. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
- B. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
- C. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
- D. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
- E. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
- F. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
Answer: C
Explanation:
What Is Administrative Distance? http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094195.shtml
Select the Best Path Administrative distance is the first criterion that a router uses to determine which routing protocol to use if two protocols provide route information for the same destination. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of the source of the routing information. Administrative distance has only local significance, and is not advertised in routing updates. Note: The smaller the administrative distance value, the more reliable the protocol. For example, if a router receives a route to a certain network from both Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) (default administrative distance - 110) and Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) (defaultadministrative distance - 100), the router chooses IGRP because IGRP is more reliable. This means the router adds the IGRP version of the route to the routing table.
NEW QUESTION # 28
An analyst for a primarily brick-and-mortar retailer is reviewing measurement results from the last half for all marketing. The media plan was 50% TV spend, with some Facebook (10%), search (10%), print (10%), and radio (20%).
No solution provides the same numbers for a single point in time. The analyst needs to recommend how to allocate budget across channels to maximize sales for the next business quarter.
Which measurement solution should be the primary source of the analyst's recommendation?
- A. Marketing mix model
- B. Nielsen Total Ads Ratings
- C. Multi-cell Conversion Lift
- D. Multi-touch attribution
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
- A. disabled
- B. listening
- C. learning
- D. forwarding
- E. discarding
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml
Port States There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state. RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Refer to the exhibit.
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
- A. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
- B. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
- C. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
- D. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
- E. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
- F. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
The question says "no other configuration changes have been made" so we can understand these
switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root
bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the
root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports
(RP) -> B and F are correct.
SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to
know about STP cost and port cost.
In general, "cost" is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link,
the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:
Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root
port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This
can be calculated from the "cost to the root bridge" of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
- A. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
- B. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
- C. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
- D. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
Answer: C
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch's database, and VLAN information is not passed between switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to VLAN 1.
NEW QUESTION # 32
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