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CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following ports is used for secure email?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port 587 is used for secure email submission. This port is designated for message submission by mail clients to mail servers using the SMTP protocol, typically with STARTTLS for encryption.
* Port 25: Traditionally used for SMTP relay, but not secure and often blocked by ISPs for outgoing mail due to spam concerns.
* Port 110: Used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), not typically secured.
* Port 143: Used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), which can be secured with STARTTLS or SSL/TLS.
* Port 587: Specifically used for authenticated email submission (SMTP) with encryption, ensuring secure transmission of email from clients to servers.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses email protocols and ports, including secure email transmission.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on securing email communications and the use of appropriate ports.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains email protocols, ports, and security considerations for email transmission.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light does not turn on. Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?
- A. Examine the cable runs for visual faults.
- B. Reterminate the fibers.
- C. Verify the fiber size.
- D. Reverse the fibers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When working with fiber optic cables, one common issue is that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers might be reversed. The first step in troubleshooting should be to reverse the fibers at one end to ensure they are correctly aligned (TX to RX and RX to TX). This is a simple and quick step to rule out a common issue before moving on to more complex troubleshooting.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 46
An administrator is configuring a switch that will be placed in an area of the office that is accessible to customers. Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to mitigate unknown devices from connecting to the network?
- A. ACL
- B. 802.1x
- C. SSE
- D. Perimeter network
Answer: B
Explanation:
802.1x is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. This ensures that only authorized devices can access the network, making it ideal for mitigating the risk of unknown devices connecting to the network, especially in accessible areas.
* 802.1x Authentication: Requires devices to authenticate using credentials (e.g., username and password, certificates) before gaining network access.
* Access Control: Prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, enhancing security in public or semi-public areas.
* Implementation: Typically used in conjunction with a RADIUS server to manage authentication requests.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers 802.1x and its role in network security.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing 802.1x for secure network access control.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and configuration of 802.1x authentication in securing network access.
NEW QUESTION # 47
An organization has a security requirement that all network connections can be traced back to a user. A network administrator needs to identify a solution to implement on the wireless network. Which of the following is the best solution?
- A. Configuring a captive portal for users
- B. Enforcing wired equivalent protection
- C. Requiring the use of PSKs
- D. Implementing enterprise authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Enterprise authentication (such as WPA2-Enterprise) utilizes unique credentials for each user, typically integrating with an authentication server like RADIUS. This allows for tracking and logging user activity, ensuring that all connections can be traced back to individual users. PSKs (Pre-Shared Keys) are shared among users and do not provide individual accountability. Captive portals can identify users but are less secure than enterprise authentication, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and not recommended for security purposes.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ materials highlight enterprise authentication methods as the preferred solution for secure and accountable wireless network access.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is most commonly associated with many systems sharing one IP address in the public IP-addressing space?
- A. NAT
- B. VIP
- C. NAT64
- D. PAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP address by assigning each device a unique port number. This is the most common method used in environments where many systems need internet access but there are limited public IP addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A newtwork administrator needs to create an SVI on a Layer 3-capable device to separate voice and data traffic. Which of the following best explains this use case?
- A. A logical interface used when the number of physical ports is insufficent.
- B. A physical interface used for trunking logical ports
- C. A logical interface used for the routing of VLANs
- D. A physical interface used for management access
Answer: C
Explanation:
An SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) is a logical interface on a Layer 3-capable switch used to route traffic between VLANs. This is particularly useful in environments where voice and data traffic need to be separated, as each type of traffic can be assigned to different VLANs and routed accordingly.
SVI (Switched Virtual Interface): A virtual interface created on a switch for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN Routing: Enables the routing of traffic between VLANs on a Layer 3 switch, allowing for logical separation of different types of traffic, such as voice and data.
Use Case: Commonly used in scenarios where efficient and segmented traffic management is required, such as in VoIP implementations.
Network Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses VLANs, SVIs, and their applications in network segmentation and routing.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on VLAN configuration and inter-VLAN routing using SVIs.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers network segmentation techniques, including the use of SVIs for VLAN routing.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A network administrator wants to implement security zones in the corporate network to control access to only individuals inside of the corporation. Which of the following security zones is the best solution?
- A. Extranet
- B. Public
- C. VPN
- D. Trusted
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Introduction to Security Zones:
* Security zones are logical segments within a network designed to enforce security policies and control access. They help in segregating and securing different parts of the network.
* Types of Security Zones:
* Trusted Zone: This is the most secure zone, typically used for internal corporate networks where only trusted users have access.
* Extranet: This zone allows controlled access to external partners, vendors, or customers.
* VPN (Virtual Private Network): While VPNs are used to create secure connections over the internet, they are not a security zone themselves.
* Public Zone: This zone is the least secure and is typically used for public-facing services accessible by anyone.
* Trusted Zone Implementation:
* The trusted zone is configured to include internal corporate users and resources. Access controls, firewalls, and other security measures ensure that only authorized personnel can access this zone.
* Internal network segments, such as the finance department, HR, and other critical functions, are usually placed in the trusted zone.
* Example Configuration:
* Firewall Rules: Set up rules to allow traffic only from internal IP addresses.
* Access Control Lists (ACLs): Implement ACLs on routers and switches to restrict access based on IP addresses and other criteria.
* Segmentation: Use VLANs and subnetting to segment and isolate the trusted zone from other zones.
* Explanation of the Options:
* A. Extranet: Suitable for external partners, not for internal-only access.
* B. Trusted: The correct answer, as it provides controlled access to internal corporate users.
* C. VPN: A method for secure remote access, not a security zone itself.
* D. Public: Suitable for public access, not for internal corporate users.
* Conclusion:
* Implementing a trusted zone is the best solution for controlling access within a corporate network.
It ensures that only trusted internal users can access sensitive resources, enhancing network security.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ guide detailing security zones and their implementation in a corporate network
* (see page Ref 9fBasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 51
You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:
1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments
2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments.
3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following are the best device-hardening techniques for network security? (Select two).
- A. Ensuring least privilege concepts are in place
- B. Monitoring system logs for irregularities
- C. Changing default passwords
- D. Performing regular scanning of unauthorized devices
- E. Disabling unused ports
- F. Enabling logical security such as SSO
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 53
After installing a series of Cat 8 keystones, a data center architect notices higher than normal interference during tests. Which of the following steps should the architect take to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Run a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds.
- B. Check to see if the end connections were wrapped in copper tape before terminating.
- C. Use passthrough modular crimping plugs instead of traditional crimping plugs.
- D. Connect the RX/TX wires to different pins.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Importance of Proper Termination:
* Cat 8 cabling requires precise termination practices to ensure signal integrity and reduce interference. One common requirement is to wrap the end connections in copper tape to maintain shielding and reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI).
* Interference Troubleshooting:
* Interference in high-frequency cables like Cat 8 can be caused by improper shielding or grounding. Checking the end connections for proper wrapping in copper tape is a crucial step.
* Why Other Options are Less Likely:
* Passthrough modular crimping plugs:Not specifically related to interference issues and are typically used for ease of cable assembly.
* Connecting RX/TX wires to different pins:Would likely result in no connection or incorrect data transmission rather than interference.
* Running a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds:This would not diagnose interference and would not provide relevant information for Cat 8 cabling rated for higher speeds.
* Corrective Actions:
* Verify that all end connections are properly wrapped with copper tape before termination.
* Ensure that the shielding is continuous and properly grounded throughout the installation.
* Retest the cabling for interference after making corrections.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials and structured cabling installation guides.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?
- A. EIGRP
- B. IS-IS
- C. BGP
- D. OSPF
Answer: C
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following attacks utilizes a network packet that contains multiple network tags?
- A. VLAN hopping
- B. MAC flooding
- C. ARP poisoning
- D. DNS spoofing
Answer: A
Explanation:
VLAN hopping is an attack where an attacker crafts packets with multiple VLAN tags, allowing them to traverse VLAN boundaries improperly. This can result in gaining unauthorized access to network segments that are supposed to be isolated. The other options do not involve the use of multiple network tags. MAC flooding aims to overwhelm a switch's MAC address table, DNS spoofing involves forging DNS responses, and ARP poisoning involves sending fake ARP messages.
Reference:
According to the CompTIA Network+ course materials, VLAN hopping exploits the tagging mechanism in network packets to gain unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following best explains the role of confidentiality with regard to data at rest?
- A. Data can be accessed after privileged access Is granted.
- B. Data can be accessed remotely with proper training.
- C. Data can be accessed by anyone on the administrative network.
- D. Data can be accessed after verifying the hash.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Confidentiality with Data at Rest: Confidentiality is a core principle of data security, ensuring that data stored (at rest) is only accessible to authorized individuals. This protection is achieved through mechanisms such as encryption, access controls, and permissions.
Privileged Access: The statement "Data can be accessed after privileged access is granted" aligns with the confidentiality principle, as it restricts data access to users who have been granted specific permissions or roles. Only those with the appropriate credentials or permissions can access the data.
Incorrect Options:
A . "Data can be accessed by anyone on the administrative network." This violates the principle of confidentiality by allowing unrestricted access.
B . "Data can be accessed remotely with proper training." This focuses on remote access rather than restricting access based on privileges.
D . "Data can be accessed after verifying the hash." This option relates more to data integrity rather than confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following best describes a group of devices that is used to lure unsuspecting attackers and to study the attackers' activities?
- A. Honeynet
- B. Jumpbox
- C. Geofencing
- D. Screened subnet
Answer: A
Explanation:
A honeynet is a network of honeypots designed to attract and study attackers. Honeypots are decoy systems set up to lure cyber attackers and analyze their activities. A honeynet, being a collection of these systems, provides a broader view of attack methods and patterns, helping organizations improve their security measures. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 58
While troubleshooting connectivity issues, a junior network administrator is given explicit instructions to test the host's TCP/IP stack first. Which of the following commands should the network administrator run?
- A. ping 172.16.1.1
- B. ping 127.0.0.1
- C. ping 169.254.1.1
- D. ping 192.168.1.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
The loopback address 127.0.0.1 is used to test the TCP/IP stack of the local machine. Pinging this address confirms whether the local system's networking stack is functioning correctly.
NEW QUESTION # 59
SIMULATION
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial information from previous documentation.
Instructions:
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal. Fill in the missing information using drop-down menus provided.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3: 192.168.3.0/24.
The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4.
You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).
- A. Hard drive size
- B. Outlet amperage
- C. KVM size
- D. Cooling fan speed
- E. Switch depth
- F. Server height
Answer: E
Explanation:
Understanding Rack Size Determination:
The size of a rack for installation is determined by the dimensions of the equipment to be housed in it, primarily focusing on the depth and height of the devices.
Switch Depth:
Depth of Equipment: The depth of network switches and other rack-mounted devices directly influences the depth of the rack. If the equipment is deeper, a deeper rack is required to accommodate it.
Industry Standards: Most racks come in standard depths, but it is essential to match the depth of the rack to the deepest piece of equipment to ensure proper fit and airflow.
Server Height:
Height of Equipment: The height of servers and other devices is measured in rack units (U), where 1U equals 1.75 inches. The total height of all equipment determines the overall height requirement of the rack.
Rack Units: A rack's height is typically described in terms of the number of rack units it can accommodate, such as 42U, 48U, etc.
Why Other Options are Less Relevant:
KVM Size: While important for management, KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switches do not typically determine rack size.
Hard Drive Size: Individual hard drives are installed within servers or storage devices, not directly influencing rack dimensions.
Cooling Fan Speed: Fan speed affects cooling but not the physical size of the rack.
Outlet Amperage: Power requirements do not determine rack dimensions but rather the electrical infrastructure supporting the rack.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on rack installation and equipment sizing.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
- A. UDP
- B. ESP
- C. AH
- D. GRE
- E. TC
P
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
* ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality.
* ESP Functionality:
* ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.
* ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).
* Comparison with Other Protocols:
* AH (Authentication Header):Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload.
* GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation):A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.
* UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol):These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL.
* Use Cases:
* ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A. A firewall performing deep packet inspection
- B. A hub utilizing jumbo frames
- C. A router with only one available LAN port
- D. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
Use Case for Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
Example Configuration:
Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
Explanation of the Options:
A . A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.
B . A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.
C . A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and do not manage IP addressing.
D . A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.
Conclusion:
Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9fasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 63
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed INSTRUCTONS Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows
Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
NEW QUESTION # 64
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed INSTRUCTONS Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
- A. Switch
- B. Bridge
- C. Access point
- D. Hub
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Definition of Jumbo Frames:
* Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
* Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
* Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high-performance networks and data centers.
* Incompatibility of Other Devices:
* Access Point: Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames.
* Bridge: Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame sizes.
* Hub: A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames.
* Practical Application:
* Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking hardware documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A network administrator configured a router interface as 10.0.0.95 255.255.255.240. The administrator discovers that the router is not routing packets to a web server with IP 10.0.0.81/28. Which of the following is the best explanation?
- A. The subnet is in a private address space.
- B. The IP address space is a class A network.
- C. The router interface is a broadcast address.
- D. The web server Is In a different subnet.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding Subnetting:
The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (or /28) indicates that each subnet has 16 IP addresses (14 usable addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address).
Calculating the Subnet Range:
Subnet Calculation: For the IP address 10.0.0.95 with a /28 subnet mask:
Network address: 10.0.0.80
Usable IP range: 10.0.0.81 to 10.0.0.94
Broadcast address: 10.0.0.95
Router Interface Configuration:
Broadcast Address Issue: The IP address 10.0.0.95 is the broadcast address for the subnet 10.0.0.80/28. Configuring a router interface with the broadcast address will cause routing issues as it is not a valid host address.
Comparison with Other Options:
The web server is in a different subnet: The web server (10.0.0.81) is within the same subnet range (10.0.0.80/28).
The IP address space is a class A network: While 10.0.0.0 is a Class A network, this does not explain the routing issue caused by the broadcast address.
The subnet is in a private address space: The private address space designation (RFC 1918) does not impact the routing issue related to the broadcast address configuration.
Resolution:
Reconfigure the router interface with a valid host IP address within the usable range, such as 10.0.0.94.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP address configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following routing protocols is most commonly used to interconnect WANs?
- A. EIGRP
- B. BGP
- C. OSPF
- D. IGP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP): BGP is the most commonly used routing protocol for interconnecting WANs, especially across the internet. It is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems (AS), making it the backbone protocol for large-scale WANs.
IGP (A): Interior Gateway Protocols like OSPF and EIGRP are typically used within a single AS, not between them.
EIGRP (B): While it is efficient, EIGRP is primarily used for intra-domain routing and not ideal for WAN interconnection.
OSPF (D): While OSPF can be used for WANs, it is not as common as BGP for inter-AS communication.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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